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If an elderly person has to go into an old peoples home (UK) don’t they have to pay themselves if they the capital or finances behind them? Doesn’t the state only pay if they have no funds? If so, what if they were “not of sound mind” and a devious relative got them to sign all their money over to them, kept and spent it for themselves and dumped them on the state saying they had no money,so the state pays and the devious relative lives in the lap of luxury? If this is the case can that relative be prosecuted by the state (presumably the DWP)?

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