Voting Question: What of needs (filler to meet the 20 char requirement)?

30/03/10

In a response to a question, I read The richest man is the one with the fewest needs. This was credited to the Bible. Although I did not find the verse that says this, or says something like this, this does sound like something that could be found in the Bible. And is a very meaningful statement.

My question is not one of religion. And, for those who will have trouble understanding that, I say again, my question IS NOT one of religion. It is how we perceive our needs, and what that statement really means. And do try to avoid confusing wants with needs. We all need water, a lot of us want it in a bottle.

Take two men. The first is what we would call well off, meaning that he has a home, has transportation, food, clothing and the means to sustain himself. The second man is destitute. Has no home, has to walk anywhere he goes, rummages for food, his clothes are thread bear and has no job or means to sustain himself.

In the example I have given, I have shown two men in different circumstances. Both have the same needs. Yet one has his needs met, while the other has not.

While we can all clearly see that the second man has many needs. At this writing it is 28 degrees(F) outside. The second man would definitelyneed shelter and proper clothing, as opposed to these things being a luxury. And he, like anyone, needs food. These are issues of survival. And he needs a means to sustain himself. Be that a job, the ability to trade work for food or clothing (another form of a job), or even the means to hunt, or farm for food (still a form of work).

With the first man, we tend to see him as not having any needs. He has shelter, a home. He has clothing and food. And he has the means by which to maintain this condition.

But do not both men have the same needs? They both need food, clothing, shelter from the cold. The only difference is that one has his needs fulfilled while the other does not. Actually, the need for food is met in the second man’s case, else he would be dead. But to illustrate my point I am saying that his need for food is not met.

The phrase The richest man is the one with the fewest needs would convey the idea that he who does not need a car, 57 TV, a fancy home, etc. would be the richest man. And I can see the logic in that. We all know that having riches can tend to complicate life. Take a pleasure craft, for example, you have to maintain it, fuel it, insure it, pay for a place to keep it and so on. Therefore, enforcing the idea of The richest man is the one with the fewest needs.

Yet in my example, the first man would most definitely seem to have the fewer needs, as his are met. While the second man seems to have more needs, as his are not met.

So, I ask this for your philosophical enjoyment: Once our needs are met, are they no longer needs? And what would be a more accurate description of the intent of The richest man is the one with the fewest needs? Could it be that we confuse wants with needs?

Share and Enjoy: